Directions: Try the USMLE question(s) below, pick one answer from the multiple choices below then check your answer by clicking 'get answer' button.
Question
A 44-year-old woman has a 2-cm firm palpable mass in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. The mass is freely movable, and her breast is of normal, rather generous size. There are no palpable axillary nodes. Mammogram shows no other lesions. A core biopsy establishes a diagnosis of infiltrating ductal carcinoma. She has no neurologic or skeletal symptoms, and a chest x-ray film and liver enzymes are normal. She understands that systemic therapy may eventually be needed once the full extent of her disease is known. Although she wants the best chance for cure, she is very concerned about the breast itself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A. Radiation and chemotherapy without breast surgery
B. Lumpectomy, axillary sampling, and postoperative radiation
C. Simple total subcutaneous mastectomy with implants
D. Modified radical mastectomy with immediate rectus abdominis flap reconstruction
E. Radical mastectomy and postoperative radiation, with delayed reconstruction
